/u/[deleted]'s posts in /r/askhistorians
Was it ever possible for Castile to integrate all of Iberia & Spain into a single Kingdom during the Iberian Union (or the 16th/17th century in general)? When specifically was this most possible, if it ever was?
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Did the Roman Empire use any propaganda or provide incentives in order to get its citizens to colonize new territories?
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When Stalin initiated the Great Purge, was he aware that more than a million people would end up being killed? Or did it snowball out of control?
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